Why is it in the Lord's prayer that "forgive our debts as we forgive others' debts" instead of "we forgive others' debts as the Lord forgives us"

I feel that there are still some differences between these two sentences. It can be seen from the word "like" that these two "exemptions" are of equal weight. Only when we forgive others' debts can we ask the Lord to forgive us. This puzzles us: didn't the Lord forgive us our sins unconditionally, and we got grace for nothing? How can you ask us to do it well before giving it to us? You know, the Lord's prayer is for disciples (and of course it may include Jews who keep the law), not for Gentiles. This group of people has been blessed, that is to say, the stage of salvation has been completed. The next step is to enter the process of victory, and there is a price to pay in this process. When the Lord said this, there was a clear solemn hint of the relationship between "cause" and "effect" For example, in other places, there are warnings such as "self-denial", "If you don't forgive others, my father in heaven won't forgive you" and "Judge people according to their actions". We can't reach such a high standard by ourselves, so it is difficult to obey the Lord's orders. We must rely on the Lord and obey his leadership all our lives.

And "we forgive people's debts, just as the Lord forgave us" is more gratitude and encouragement.